Inactivated influenza virus vaccine

Inactivated influenza virus vaccine Brand Names

Afluria | Afluria Quadrivalent | Agriflu | Alfuria | FLUAD | FLUAD Quadrivalent | Fluarix | Fluarix Quadrivalent | Flublok | Flublok Quadrivalent | FLUCELVAX | FLUCELVAX Quadrivalent | Flulaval | Flulaval Quadrivalent | Fluogen | Flushield | Fluvirin | Fluzone | Fluzone High-Dose | Fluzone Intradermal | Fluzone Quadrivalent

What is Inactivated influenza virus vaccine

Inactivated influenza virus vaccine (IIV) is used to confer immunity against specific strains of influenza virus.

Most IIV products consist of inactivated virus particles prepared from the allantoic fluid of chick embryos inoculated with the influenza virus; however, some egg-free products are now available.

Flucelvax employs mammalian cells (Madin-Darby canine kidney epithelial cells) rather than chicken embryos to prepare the inactivated virus particles.

Flublok uses baculovirus (Autographa californica nuclear polyhedrosis virus) infected insect cells (fall armyworm) to produce recombinant influenza virus hemagglutinin (HA) proteins.

Because influenza viruses are continually changing and antibodies produced by the host in response to the vaccine diminish over time, annual immunization is required.

The parenteral influenza vaccines contain either 3 (2 type A and 1 type B) or 4 (2 type A and 2 type B) strains that represent the influenza viruses likely to circulate during the annual flu season.

The US and Canadian governments (individually) determine annually which strains to include in the vaccine based on epidemiological studies and consultation with several groups, including the World Health Organization.

The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommend annual flu vaccination with an age-appropriate influenza vaccine (i.e., IIV, recombinant influenza vaccine (RIV), or quadrivalent live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV4)), without preference of 1 product or formulation over another, for everyone 6 months and older.

Indications

• seasonal influenza prophylaxis

Side Effects

1. abdominal pain
2. anaphylactic shock
3. angioedema
4. anorexia
5. arthralgia
6. back pain
7. bronchospasm
8. chest pain (unspecified)
9. chills
10. confusion
11. conjunctivitis
12. cough
13. diaphoresis
14. diarrhea
15. dizziness
16. drowsiness
17. dysmenorrhea
18. dysphagia
19. dysphonia
20. dyspnea
21. ecchymosis
22. encephalopathy
23. erythema
24. erythema multiforme
25. fatigue
26. fever
27. flushing
28. Guillain-Barre syndrome
29. headache
30. hypoesthesia
31. infection
32. injection site reaction
33. insomnia
34. irritability
35. laryngitis
36. lymphadenopathy
37. malaise
38. migraine
39. muscle paralysis
40. myalgia
41. myelitis
42. nasal congestion
43. nausea
44. neuropathic pain
45. optic neuritis
46. pallor
47. paresthesias
48. pharyngitis
49. photophobia
50. pruritus
51. rash
52. rhinitis
53. rhinorrhea
54. seizures
55. shivering
56. sinus tachycardia
57. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
58. syncope
59. throat irritation
60. thrombocytopenia
61. tremor
62. urticaria
63. vasculitis
64. vertigo
65. vomiting
66. wheezing

Monitoring Parameters

• laboratory monitoring not necessary

Contraindications

• acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
• agammaglobulinemia
• anticoagulant therapy
• breast-feeding
• coagulopathy
• egg hypersensitivity
• fever
• geriatric
• Guillain-Barre syndrome
• hemophilia
• human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection
• hypogammaglobulinemia
• immunosuppression
• intravenous administration
• kanamycin hypersensitivity
• latex hypersensitivity
• neomycin hypersensitivity
• neoplastic disease
• organ transplant
• pregnancy
• radiation therapy
• severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
• subcutaneous administration
• syncope
• thrombocytopenia
• vitamin K deficiency

Interactions

• Abatacept
• Adalimumab
• Aldesleukin, IL-2
• Alefacept
• Alemtuzumab
• Alkylating agents
• Alpha interferons
• Altretamine
• Anakinra
• Antimetabolites
• Antithymocyte Globulin
• Antitumor antibiotics
• Axicabtagene Ciloleucel
• Azathioprine
• Baricitinib
• Basiliximab
• Belatacept
• Belimumab
• Bexarotene
• Blinatumomab
• Brodalumab
• Busulfan
• Canakinumab
• Carmustine, BCNU
• Certolizumab pegol
• Chlorambucil
• Cisplatin
• Clofarabine
• Cortisone
• Cyclophosphamide
• Cyclosporine
• Cytarabine, ARA-C
• Dacarbazine, DTIC
• Daclizumab
• Deflazacort
• Dexamethasone
• Docetaxel
• Dupilumab
• Efalizumab
• Emapalumab
• Estramustine
• Etanercept
• Everolimus
• Fingolimod
• Floxuridine
• Fludrocortisone
• Fluorouracil, 5-FU
• Folate analogs
• Golimumab
• Guselkumab
• Hydrocortisone
• Ifosfamide
• Imatinib
• Inebilizumab
• Infliximab
• Interferon Gamma-1b
• Ixabepilone
• Ixekizumab
• Leflunomide
• Lenalidomide
• Lomustine, CCNU
• Mechlorethamine, Nitrogen Mustard
• Melphalan
• Methylprednisolone
• Mitoxantrone
• Muromonab-CD3
• Mycophenolate
• Natalizumab
• Nelarabine
• Nilotinib
• Obinutuzumab
• Ocrelizumab
• Ofatumumab
• Ozanimod
• Paclitaxel
• Prednisolone
• Prednisone
• Procarbazine
• Purine analogs
• Rilonacept
• Risankizumab
• Rituximab
• Rituximab; Hyaluronidase
• Sarilumab
• Secukinumab
• Siltuximab
• Siponimod
• Sirolimus
• Streptozocin
• Tacrolimus
• Temozolomide
• Temsirolimus
• Teriflunomide
• Thiotepa
• Tildrakizumab
• Tisagenlecleucel
• Tocilizumab
• Tofacitinib
• Tositumomab
• Triamcinolone
• Ustekinumab
• Vedolizumab
• Venetoclax
• Vincristine
• Vincristine Liposomal
• Vinorelbine